1.5.0.0.1.a.1 G10 ALL Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage A. which requires repairs to landing gear. B. to an engine caused by engine failure in flight. C. which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics. C 1.5.0.0.2.a.1 G11 ALL NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident? A. Engine failure for any reason during flight. B. Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing. C. Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness. C 1.5.0.0.3.a.1 G11 ALL Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? A. In-flight fire. B. Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch. C. Fire of the primary aircraft while hangered which results in damage to other property of more than $50,000. A 1.5.0.0.4.a.1 G11 ALL While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830? A. No notification or report is required. B. A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours. C. An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office. A 1.5.0.0.5.a.1 G11 ALL During flight a fire which was extinguished burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations? A. No notification or report is required. B. Report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours. C. An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office. C 1.5.0.0.6.a.1 G11 ALL When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries? A. Immediately. B. Within 10 days. C. Within 30 days. A 1.5.0.0.7.a.1 G13 ALL The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A. within 7 days. B. within 10 days. C. only if requested to do so. C 1.5.0.0.8.a.1 G13 ALL Within how many days of an accident is an accident report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office? A. 2 days. B. 7 days. C. 10 days. C 1.5.0.0.9.a.1 A01 ALL What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation? A. Class D, which then becomes Class C. B. Class D, which then becomes Class E. C. Class B. B 1.5.0.1.0.a.1 A01 ALL Regulations which refer to commercial operators relate to that person who A. is the owner of a small scheduled airline. B. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier. C. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier. C 1.5.0.1.1.a.1 A01 ALL Regulations which refer to operate relate to that person who A. acts as pilot in command of the aircraft. B. is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. C. causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use. C 1.5.0.1.2.a.1 A01 ALL Regulations which refer to the operational control of a flight are in relation to A. the specific duties of any required crewmember. B. acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. C. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C 1.5.0.1.3.a.1 A02 AIR,GLI Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration? A. VS. B. VS1. C. VSO. B 1.5.0.1.4.a.1 A02 AIR,GLI Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. VS. B. VS1. C. VSO. A 1.5.0.1.5.a.1 A02 AIR,GLI FAR Part 1 defines VF as A. design flap speed. B. flap operating speed. C. maximum flap extended speed. A 1.5.0.1.8.a.1 A20 ALL Commercial pilots are required to have a current and appropriate pilot certificate in their personal possession when A. piloting for hire only. B. carrying passengers only. C. acting as pilot in command. C 1.5.0.2.0.a.1 A20 ALL Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date? A. No, it is issued without an expiration date. B. Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued. C. No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months. A 1.5.0.2.6.a.1 A20 ALL What flight time must be shown, in a reliable record, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate? A. Flight time showing aeronautical training and experience to meet requirements for a certificate or rating. B. All flight time flown for compensation or hire. C. Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements. A 1.5.0.2.7.a.1 A20 ALL If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1800 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is A. 1759 CST. B. 1829 CST. C. 1859 CST. C 1.5.0.2.8.a.1 A20 ALL Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in A. any category aircraft. B. the same category and class of aircraft to be used. C. the same category, class, and type of aircraft to be used. B 1.5.0.3.1.a.1 A20 ALL To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under FAR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 24 months. C 1.5.0.3.2.a.1 A20 ALL Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of A. 30 days. B. 60 days. C. 90 days. A 1.5.0.3.3.a.1 A21 AIR,GLI To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a certificated airplane pilot is required to have A. a logbook record of having made at least 3 flights as sole manipulator of the controls of a glider being towed by an airplane. B. a logbook endorsement for receipt of ground and flight instruction in gliders and familiarity with techniques and procedures for glider towing. C. at least a private pilot certificate with a glider rating and made and logged at least 3 flights as pilot or observer in a glider being towed by an airplane. B 1.5.0.3.4.a.1 A21 AIR,GLI To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have a pilot certificate and A. a glider rating, and pass a written test on the techniques and procedures essential for safe towing of gliders. B. a logbook record of having made at least 3 flights in a glider, and be familiar with the techniques and procedures essential for safe towing of gliders. C. have received and logged ground and flight instruction in gliders, and be familiar with the techniques and procedures essential for safe towing of gliders. C 1.5.0.3.5.a.1 A22 GLI,LTA What is the minimum age requirement for a person to be issued a student pilot certificate limited to gliders or free balloons? A. 14 years of age. B. 15 years of age. C. 16 years of age. A 1.5.0.3.8.a.1 A24 GLI The medical requirements to exercise the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a glider rating is at least a A. valid second-class medical certificate. B. medical statement from a designated medical examiner on file with the nearest FAA district office. C. statement by the pilot certifying he/she has no known medical deficiency that makes him/her unable to pilot a glider. C 1.5.0.4.3.a.1 A60 ALL Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from A. 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. C. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. B 1.5.0.4.4.a.1 A60 ALL One of the major differences between Class D airspace and Class E airspace is that Class D airspace A. is located at tower-controlled airports and Class E airspace is at uncontrolled airports. B. always begins at 700 feet AGL while Class E always begins at 1,200 feet above the surface. C. begins at the surface, while Class E always begins at an altitude of 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the surface. A 1.5.0.4.5.a.1 A60 ALL The Continental Control Area A. does not exist anymore. B. extends upward from 10,000 feet MSL. C. extends upward from 14,500 feet MSL. A 1.5.0.4.6.a.1 A60 ALL Within the contiguous U.S., the vertical limit of Class D airspace normally extends from the surface upward to A. infinity. B. but not including the base of Class A airspace. C. 2,500 feet AGL or indicated within a square depicted within that airspace on aeronautical charts. C 1.5.0.4.7.a.1 A60 ALL Which is true regarding Class E airspace? A. The basic VFR minimums are greater than those associated Class D airspace. B. Class E airspace may start at the surface, but usually begins at an altitude of 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the surface. C. Class E airspace begins at the surface and extend upward to Flight Level 600. B 1.5.0.4.9.a.1 B07 ALL The required preflight action relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to A. IFR flights only. B. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. C. any flight conducted for hire or compensation. B 1.5.0.5.0.a.1 B07 ALL Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must A. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. B. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed. C 1.5.0.5.2.a.1 B07 ALL The use of seatbelts, with certain exceptions, during takeoffs and landings is A. required for all occupants. B. required during commercial operations only. C. a good operating practice, but not required by regulations. A 1.5.0.5.3.a.1 B07 GLI GIVEN: Glider's maximum certificated operating weight 1,140 lb Towline breaking strength 3,050 lb Which meets the requirement for one of the safety links? A breaking strength of A. 812 pounds installed where the towline is attached to the towplane. B. 920 pounds installed where the towline is attached to the glider. C. 2,300 pounds installed where the towline is attached to the glider. B 1.5.0.5.4.a.1 B07 GLI During aerotow of a glider that weighs 940 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope? A. 752 pounds. B. 1,500 pounds. C. 2,000 pounds. C 1.5.0.5.6.a.1 B07 ALL Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on aircraft being flown A. along Federal airways. B. within the U.S. C. in commercial operations. C 1.5.0.6.3.a.1 B07 ALL In accordance with FAR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of A. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL. B. 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. C. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL. C 1.5.0.6.4.a.1 B07 ALL What are the oxygen requirements when operating above 15,000 feet MSL? A. Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew. B. Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a free balloon. C. The flightcrew must use and passengers must be provided oxygen. C 1.5.0.6.5.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC,GLI Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? A. Anticollision light system. B. Gyroscopic direction indicator. C. Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator. A 1.5.0.7.3.a.1 B08 ALL Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. B. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM. C. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire. C 1.5.0.7.5.a.1 B08 ALL Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A. at the higher altitude. B. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft. C. that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft. B 1.5.0.7.9.a.1 B08 AIR,GLI What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight? A. 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles. B. 2,000 feet MSL and 2 miles. C. 3,000 feet AGL and 1 mile. A 1.5.0.8.0.a.1 B08 ALL If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight A. at sunset. B. 30 minutes after sunset. C. 1 hour after sunset. A 1.5.0.8.2.a.1 B08 ALL Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace? A. Area navigation equipment is required. B. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated. C. Solo student pilot operations are allowed if certain conditions are satisfied. C 1.5.0.8.3.a.1 B08 ALL The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 miles beginning at an altitude of A. 14,500 feet MSL. B. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL. C. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground. B 1.5.0.8.4.a.1 B08 GLI When flying a glider above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, what minimum flight visibility is required? A. 3 NM. B. 5 SM. C. 7 SM. B 1.5.0.8.5.a.1 B08 ALL What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace? A. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds. B. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below. C. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below. B 1.5.0.9.2.a.1 B08 ALL Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is A. 3,000 feet over all terrain. B. 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere. C. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere. C 1.5.0.9.3.a.1 B13 ALL Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition? A. The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft. B. Pilot in command. C. Operator or owner of the aircraft. C 1.5.0.9.4.a.1 B13 ALL Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the A. pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft. B. pilot in command of that aircraft. C. owner or operator of that aircraft. C 1.5.0.9.5.a.1 B13 ALL After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made A. on the airworthiness certificate. B. in the aircraft maintenance records. C. in the FAA-approved flight manual. B 1.5.0.9.6.a.1 B13 ALL The validity of the airworthiness certificate is maintained by A. performance of an annual inspection. B. performance of an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration date. C. an appropriate return to service statement in the aircraft maintenance records upon the completion of required inspections and maintenance. C 1.5.0.9.7.a.1 B13 ALL If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated A. by any private pilot. B. with passengers aboard. C. for compensation or hire. B 1.5.0.9.8.a.1 B13 ALL Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot? A. A record of preventive maintenance is not required. B. A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records. C. Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight B 1.5.0.9.9.a.1 B13 ALL An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection? A. The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours. B. The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs. C. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done. C 1.5.1.0.0.a.1 B13 ALL Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections? A. A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection. B. An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection. C. An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved. B 1.5.1.0.1.a.1 B13 ALL An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding A. 30 days. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C 1.5.1.0.2.a.1 B13 ALL Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the A. applicable airworthiness certificate. B. life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe. C. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. C 1.5.1.0.3.a.1 B13 ALL Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD's) ? A. AD's are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately. B. Noncompliance with AD's renders an aircraft unairworthy. C. Compliance with AD's is the responsibility of maintenance personnel. B 1.5.1.0.5.a.1 B13 ALL If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use? A. Its use is not permitted. B. It may be used when in Class G airspace. C. It may be used for VFR flight only. A 1.5.1.2.1.a.1 E01 ALL Under FAR Part 135 operations, who is responsible for keeping copies of the ATCO manual up to date with approved changes or additions? A. Supervising FAA district office and the certificate holder. B. Each district office employee responsible for that manual. C. Each employee of the certificate holder who is furnished a manual. C 1.5.1.2.2.a.1 E01 ALL For FAR Part 135 operations, which document(s) contain(s) procedures that explain how the pilot in command knows that the required return-to-service conditions have been met? A. Daily flight log and operation specifications. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Mechanical deviation summary guide. B 1.5.1.2.4.a.1 E01 ALL An aircraft may be operated in a foreign country by an FAR Part 135 operator if authorized to do so by A. that country. B. the supervising district office. C. the FAA International Field Office in that country. A 1.5.1.2.5.a.1 E02 ALL In accordance with FAR Part 135, what period of time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen while cruising at 13,500 feet MSL for 3 hours 45 minutes in an unpressurized aircraft? A. 1 hour 30 minutes. B. 2 hours 30 minutes. C. 3 hours 45 minutes. C 2.5.1.5.1.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as A. load factor and directly affects stall speed. B. aspect load and directly affects stall speed. C. load factor and has no relation with stall speed. A 2.5.1.5.2.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time A. divided by the total weight of the aircraft. B. multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. C. divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft. A 2.5.1.5.5.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to A. increase. B. decrease. C. not vary. A 2.5.1.5.7.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A. decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B. decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. C. increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. B 2.5.1.5.8.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the A. force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. B. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. C. reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber. A 2.5.1.5.9.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI While holding the angle of bank constant, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would A. remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector. B. vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately. C. vary depending upon the resultant lift vector. A 2.5.1.6.0.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon: A. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed. B. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. C. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed. B 2.5.1.6.7.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? A. A decrease in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing, and decrease drag. B. An increase in angle of attack will decrease impact pressure below the wing, and increase drag. C. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing, and increase drag. C 2.5.1.8.1.a.1 H51 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns? A. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed. B. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed. C. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick. B 2.5.1.8.2.a.1 H51 AIR,GLI One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to A. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. B. provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed. C. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than- normal approach to be made. B 2.5.1.9.2.a.1 H55 AIR,GLI To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should A. maintain the bank and decrease airspeed. B. steepen the bank and increase airspeed. C. steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C 2.5.1.9.7.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the A. wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root. B. wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip. C. center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip. B 2.5.1.9.8.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A. lift, airspeed, and drag. B. lift, airspeed, and CG. C. lift and airspeed, but not drag. A 2.5.1.9.9.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the A. angle of incidence of the wing. B. amount of airflow above and below the wing. C. distribution of pressures acting on the wing. C 2.5.2.0.1.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from relatively A. negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface. B. a vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface. C. higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface. C 2.5.2.0.2.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the A. chord line. B. flight path. C. longitudinal axis. B 2.5.2.0.6.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI The inclinometer is mounted on the left side of the instrument panel. A spin to the left would displace the ball in which direction? A. To the right. B. No displacement, it will remain centered. C. To the left. C 2.5.2.0.8.a.1 H66 ALL At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed A. will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. B. will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged. C. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air. A 2.5.2.1.5.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 3.) The L/D ratio at a 2° angle of attack is approximately the same as the L/D ratio for a A. 9.75° angle of attack. B. 10.5° angle of attack. C. 16.5° angle of attack. C 2.5.2.1.6.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will A. increase, and induced drag will decrease. B. decrease, and parasite drag will increase. C. increase, and induced drag will increase. A 2.5.2.1.8.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A. upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B. rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces. C. forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C 2.5.2.1.9.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight? A. At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. B. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. C. An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. B 2.5.2.2.2.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 4.) What increase in load factor would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60° to 80°? A. 3 G's. B. 3.5 G's. C. 4 G's. C 2.5.2.2.5.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift A. decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases. B. increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases. C. decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant. A 2.5.2.2.6.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A. neutral longitudinal static stability. B. positive longitudinal static stability. C. neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A 2.5.2.2.7.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by A. bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper. B. pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper. C. Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper. B 2.5.2.3.1.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 5.) The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the A. ultimate load factor. B. positive limit load factor. C. airspeed range for normal operations. B 2.5.2.3.2.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 5.) The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the A. upper limit of the yellow arc. B. upper limit of the green arc. C. blue radial line. A 2.5.2.3.3.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 5.) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the A. green arc. B. yellow arc. C. white arc. A 2.5.2.3.9.a.1 H70 AIR,GLI When the angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is increased, the center of pressure will A. have very limited movement. B. move aft along the airfoil surface. C. remain unaffected. C 2.5.2.7.2.a.1 L34 ALL How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. B. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. C 2.5.2.7.3.a.1 N07 GLI Which is true regarding variometers? A. Variometers do not utilize outside air static pressure lines. B. A variometer is generally considered to be less sensitive and has a slower response time than a vertical-speed indicator. C. A common problem in pellet variometers is stickiness of the piston because of dirt, moisture, or static electricity in the tapered tubes. C 2.5.2.7.4.a.1 N07 GLI Which is true regarding variometers? A. An electric variometer does not utilize outside air static pressure lines. B. A total energy variometer indicates actual thermal existence or nonexistence rather than indications of climb or descent due to stick thermals. C. One of the advantages of the pellet variometer over the vane variometer, is that dirt, moisture, or static electricity will not affect its operation. B 2.5.2.7.5.a.1 N07 GLI Which is true concerning total energy compensators? The instrument A. responds to up and down air currents only. B. will register climbs that result from stick thermals. C. reacts to climbs and descents like a conventional rate-of-climb indicator. A 2.5.2.7.6.a.1 N20 GLI The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease A. the drag. B. landing speed. C. the lift of the wing. C 2.5.2.7.7.a.1 N20 GLI That portion of the glider's total drag created by the production of lift is called A. induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed. B. induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. C. parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. B 2.5.2.7.8.a.1 N20 GLI The best L/D ratio of a glider occurs when parasite drag is A. equal to induced drag. B. less than induced drag. C. greater than induced drag. A 2.5.2.7.9.a.1 N20 GLI A glider is designed for an L/D ratio of 22:1 at 50 MPH in calm air. What would the approximate GLIDE RATIO be with a direct headwind of 25 MPH? A. 44:1. B. 22:1. C. 11:1. C 2.5.2.8.0.a.1 N20 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding aerodynamic drag? A. Induced drag is created entirely by air resistance. B. All aerodynamic drag is created entirely by the production of lift. C. Induced drag is a by-product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. C 2.5.2.8.1.a.1 N20 GLI At a given airspeed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag of a glider? A. Lift and drag will decrease. B. Lift will increase but drag will decrease. C. Lift and drag will increase. C 2.5.2.8.2.a.1 N20 GLI Both lift and drag would be increased when which of these devices are extended? A. Flaps. B. Spoilers. C. Slats. A 2.5.2.8.3.a.1 N20 GLI If the airspeed of a glider is increased from 45 MPH to 90 MPH, the parasite drag will be A. two times greater. B. four times greater. C. six times greater. B 2.5.2.8.4.a.1 N20 GLI If the indicated airspeed of a glider is decreased from 90 MPH to 45 MPH, the induced drag will be A. four times less. B. two times greater. C. four times greater. C 2.5.2.8.5.a.1 N20 GLI Which is true regarding wing camber of a glider's airfoil? The camber is A. the same on both the upper and lower wing surface. B. less on the upper wing surface than it is on the lower wing surface. C. greater on the upper wing surface than it is on the lower wing surface. C 2.5.2.8.6.a.1 N20 GLI If the glider's radius of turn is 175 feet at 40 MPH, what would the radius of turn be if the TAS is increased to 80 MPH while maintaining a constant angle of bank? A. 350 feet. B. 525 feet. C. 700 feet. C 2.5.2.8.7.a.1 N20 GLI In regard to the location of the glider's CG and its effect on glider spin characteristics, which is true? If the CG is too far A. aft, a flat spin may develop. B. forward, spin entry will be impossible. C. aft, spins will degenerate into CG high-speed spirals. A 2.5.2.8.8.a.1 N20 GLI The CG of most gliders is located A. ahead of the aerodynamic center of the wing to increase lateral stability. B. ahead of the aerodynamic center of the wing to increase longitudinal stability. C. behind the aerodynamic center of the wing to increase longitudinal stability. X/B 2.5.2.8.9.a.1 N20 GLI Loading a glider so that the CG exceeds the aft limits results in A. excessive load factor in turns. B. excessive upward force on the tail, and causes the nose to pitch down. C. loss of longitudinal stability, and causes the nose to pitch up at slow speeds. C 2.5.2.9.0.a.1 N20 GLI With regard to the effects of spoilers and wing flaps, which is true if the glider's pitch attitude is held constant when such devices are being operated? (Disregard negative flap angles above neutral position.) Retracting flaps A. will reduce the glider's stall speed. B. or extending spoilers will increase the glider's rate of descent. C. or extending spoilers will decrease the glider's rate of descent. B 2.5.2.9.1.a.1 N20 GLI If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the glider A. regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude. B. unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed. C. unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon. A 2.5.2.9.2.a.1 N20 GLI What force causes the glider to turn in flight? A. Vertical component of lift. B. Horizontal component of lift. C. Positive yawing movement of the rudder. B 2.5.2.9.3.a.1 N20 GLI GIVEN: Glider A Wingspan.................................51 ft Average wing chord....................4 ft Glider B Wingspan..................................48 ft Average wing chord..................3.5 ft Determine the correct aspect ratio and its effect on performance at low speeds. A. Glider A has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and will generate less lift with greater drag than glider B. B. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and will generate greater lift with less drag than glider A. C. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 12.7, and will generate less lift with greater drag than glider A. B 2.5.2.9.4.a.1 N20 GLI GIVEN: Glider A Wingspan................................48 ft Average wing chord................4.5 ft Glider B Wingspan.................................54 ft Average wing chord.................3.7 ft Determine the correct aspect ratio and its effect on performance at low speeds. A. Glider A has an aspect ratio of 10.6, and will generate greater lift with less drag than will glider B. B. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 14.5, and will generate greater lift with less drag than will glider A. C. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 10.6, and will generate less lift with greater drag than will glider A. B 2.5.2.9.5.a.1 N21 GLI The best L/D ratio of a glider is a value that A. varies depending upon the weight being carried. B. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes. C. remains constant and is independent of the weight being carried. C 2.5.2.9.6.a.1 N21 GLI A glide ratio of 22:1 with respect to the air mass will be A. 11:1 in a tailwind and 44:1 in a headwind. B. 22:1 regardless of wind direction and speed. C. 11:1 in a headwind and 44:1 in a tailwind. B 2.5.2.9.7.a.1 N22 GLI The advantage of total energy compensators is that this system A. includes a speed ring around the rim of the variometer. B. adds the effect of stick thermals to the total energy produced by thermals. C. reduces climb and dive errors on variometer indications caused by airspeed changes. C 3.5.3.0.1.a.1 I21 ALL Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of A. a heat exchange. B. the movement of air. C. a pressure differential. A 3.5.3.0.2.a.1 I21 ALL What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? A. -5 °C. B. -15 °C. C. +5 °C. A 3.5.3.0.3.a.1 I21 ALL What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet? A. -15 °C. B. -20 °C. C. -25 °C. C 3.5.3.0.4.a.1 I21 ALL Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion? A. Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. B. Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface. C. Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude. A 3.5.3.0.5.a.1 I22 ALL What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? A. 15 °C and 29.92" Hg. B. 59 °F and 1013.2" Hg. C. 15 °C and 29.92 Mb. A 3.5.3.0.6.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude 12,000 ft True air temperature +50 °F From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 11,900 feet. B. 14,130 feet. C. 18,150 feet. B 3.5.3.0.7.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude.................5,000 ft True air temperature............+30 °C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 7,800 feet. B. 8,100 feet. C. 8,800 feet. A 3.5.3.0.8.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude.................6,000 ft True air temperature............+30 °F From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 9,000 feet. B. 5,500 feet. C. 5,000 feet. B 3.5.3.0.9.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude.................7,000 ft True air temperature............+15 °C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 5,000 feet. B. 8,500 feet. C. 9,500 feet. B 3.5.3.1.0.a.1 I23 ALL What causes wind? A. The Earth's rotation. B. Air mass modification. C. Pressure differences. C 3.5.3.1.1.a.1 I23 ALL In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the A. right by Coriolis force. B. right by surface friction. C. left by Coriolis force. A 3.5.3.1.2.a.1 I23 ALL Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level? A. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient. B. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows. C. Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient. A 3.5.3.1.3.a.1 I23 ALL The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is A. an anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air. B. a cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force. C. an anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force. B 3.5.3.1.4.a.1 I23 ALL With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are A. close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker. B. not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger. C. close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger. C 3.5.3.1.5.a.1 I23 ALL What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas? A. Coriolis force. B. Surface friction. C. Pressure gradient force. A 3.5.3.1.6.a.1 I23 ALL While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you A. are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions. B. have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions. C. cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes. A 3.5.3.1.7.a.1 I23 ALL Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system? A. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. B. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air. C. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air. C 3.5.3.1.8.a.1 I23 ALL Which is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems? A. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. B. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air. C. Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air. B 3.5.3.1.9.a.1 I23 ALL When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the A. left and decreasing. B. left and increasing. C. right and decreasing. B 3.5.3.2.0.a.1 I24 ALL Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread? The temperature spread A. decreases as the relative humidity decreases. B. decreases as the relative humidity increases. C. increases as the relative humidity increases. B 3.5.3.2.1.a.1 I24 ALL The general circulation of air associated with a high-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is A. outward, downward, and clockwise. B. outward, upward, and clockwise. C. inward, downward, and clockwise. A 3.5.3.2.2.a.1 I24 ALL Virga is best described as A. streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. B. wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground. C. turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds. A 3.5.3.2.3.a.1 I24 ALL Moisture is added to a parcel of air by A. sublimation and condensation. B. evaporation and condensation. C. evaporation and sublimation. C 3.5.3.2.4.a.1 I24 ALL Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that A. a warm front has passed. B. a warm front is about to pass. C. there are thunderstorms in the area. B 3.5.3.2.5.a.1 I24 ALL What is indicated if ice pellets are encountered at 8,000 feet? A. Freezing rain at higher altitude. B. You are approaching an area of thunderstorms. C. You will encounter hail if you continue your flight. A 3.5.3.2.6.a.1 I24 ALL Ice pellets encountered during flight are normally evidence that A. a cold front has passed. B. there are thunderstorms in the area. C. freezing rain exists at higher altitudes. C 3.5.3.2.7.a.1 I25 ALL When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather? A. Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds. B. Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area. C. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. C 3.5.3.2.8.a.1 I25 ALL What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 70 °F. and the dewpoint is 52 °F? A. 3,000 feet MSL. B. 4,000 feet MSL. C. 6,000 feet MSL. C 3.5.3.2.9.a.1 I25 ALL If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be A. cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence. B. cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence. C. stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence. C 3.5.3.3.0.a.1 I25 ALL What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend? A. The method by which the air is lifted. B. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. C. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs. B 3.5.3.3.1.a.1 I25 ALL Refer to the excerpt from a surface weather report: ABC ...194/89/45/2115/993... At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform clouds be expected? (Use most accurate method.) A. 4,400 feet. B. 10,000 feet. C. 17,600 feet. B 3.5.3.3.2.a.1 I25 ALL What are the characteristics of stable air? A. Good visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds. B. Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds. C. Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation; cumulus clouds. B 3.5.3.3.3.a.1 I25 ALL Which would decrease the stability of an air mass? A. Warming from below. B. Cooling from below. C. Decrease in water vapor. A 3.5.3.3.4.a.1 I25 ALL From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined? A. Atmospheric pressure. B. The ambient lapse rate. C. The dry adiabatic lapse rate. B 3.5.3.3.5.a.1 I25 ALL What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures? A. Fog and low stratus clouds. B. Continuous heavy precipitation. C. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. C 3.5.3.3.6.a.1 I25 ALL Which would increase the stability of an air mass? A. Warming from below. B. Cooling from below. C. Decrease in water vapor. B 3.5.3.3.7.a.1 I26 ALL The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and A. unstable, dry air. B. stable, moist air. C. unstable, moist air. B 3.5.3.3.8.a.1 I26 ALL Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence? A. Cirrus clouds. B. Nimbostratus clouds. C. Towering cumulus clouds. C 3.5.3.3.9.a.1 I26 ALL The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of A. lenticular ice formation in calm air. B. very strong turbulence. C. heavy icing conditions. B 3.5.3.4.0.a.1 I27 ALL The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the A. source of lift. B. stability of the air being lifted. C. temperature of the air being lifted. B 3.5.3.4.1.a.1 I27 ALL Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain? A. Stable, moist air and orographic lifting. B. Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting. C. Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism. B 3.5.3.4.2.a.1 I27 ALL What is a characteristic of stable air? A. Stratiform clouds. B. Fair weather cumulus clouds. C. Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude. A 3.5.3.4.3.a.1 I27 ALL A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by A. poor visibility and smooth air. B. cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. C. stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation. B 3.5.3.4.4.a.1 I27 ALL When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist? A. Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds. B. Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels. C. Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility. C 3.5.3.4.5.a.1 I27 ALL Which is a characteristic of stable air? A. Cumuliform clouds. B. Excellent visibility. C. Restricted visibility. C 3.5.3.4.6.a.1 I27 ALL Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass? A. Cumuliform clouds. B. Showery precipitation. C. Continuous precipitation. C 3.5.3.4.7.a.1 I27 ALL Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front A. is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front. B. is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. C. has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front. B 3.5.3.4.8.a.1 I27 ALL Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface? A. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. B. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. C. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility. B 3.5.3.4.9.a.1 I27 ALL The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and A. unstable, dry air. B. stable, moist air. C. unstable, moist air. C 3.5.3.5.0.a.1 I27 ALL Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to A. nocturnal cooling. B. adiabatic cooling. C. evaporation of precipitation. C 3.5.3.5.1.a.1 I28 ALL What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction. B. It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction. C. It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction. C 3.5.3.5.2.a.1 I28 ALL Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered A. near warm or stationary frontal activity. B. when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots. C. in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms. C 3.5.3.5.3.a.1 I28 ALL Low-level wind shear may occur when A. surface winds are light and variable. B. there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion. C. surface winds are above 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and windspeed with height. B 3.5.3.5.4.a.1 I28 ALL If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to A. wind shear. B. strong surface winds. C. strong convective currents. A 3.5.3.5.5.a.1 I28 ALL GIVEN: Winds at 3,000 feet AGL....................30 kts Surface winds......................................Calm While approaching for landing under clear skies a few hours after sunrise, one should A. allow a margin of approach airspeed above normal to avoid stalling. B. keep the approach airspeed at or slightly below normal to compensate for floating. C. not alter our approach airspeed, these conditions are nearly ideal. A 3.5.3.5.6.a.1 I28 ALL Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are A. light. B. moderate. C. strong. A 3.5.3.5.7.a.1 I28 ALL When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the A. leeward side when flying with a tailwind. B. leeward side when flying into the wind. C. windward side when flying into the wind. B 3.5.3.5.9.a.1 I28 ALL During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause A. a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. B. a gain in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. C. no change in airspeed, but groundspeed will decrease. A 3.5.3.6.0.a.1 I29 ALL Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of A. 32 °F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32 °F. B. 0 °C or less into air having a temperature of 0 °C or more. C. more than 32 °F into air having a temperature of 32 °F or less. C 3.5.3.6.1.a.1 I30 ALL Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail? A. Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in the clouds. B. Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of no hail aloft. C. Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm. C 3.5.3.6.2.a.1 I30 ALL Hail is most likely to be associated with A. cumulus clouds. B. cumulonimbus clouds. C. stratocumulus clouds. B 3.5.3.6.3.a.1 I30 ALL The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with A. slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause. B. squall lines. C. fast-moving occluded fronts. B 3.5.3.6.4.a.1 I30 ALL Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms? A. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm. B. Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them. C. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm. C 3.5.3.6.5.a.1 I30 ALL If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least A. 20 miles. B. 10 miles. C. 5 miles. A 3.5.3.6.6.a.1 I30 ALL Which statement is true regarding squall lines? A. They are always associated with cold fronts. B. They are slow in forming, but rapid in movement. C. They are nonfrontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms. C 3.5.3.6.7.a.1 I30 ALL Which statement is true concerning squall lines? A. They form slowly, but move rapidly. B. They are associated with frontal systems only. C. They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft. C 3.5.3.6.8.a.1 I30 ALL Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm. A. Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm. B. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm. C. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm. B 3.5.3.6.9.a.1 I30 ALL What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms? A. Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail. B. Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static. C. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds. C 3.5.3.7.0.a.1 I30 ALL Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? A. The start of rain. B. The appearance of an anvil top. C. Growth rate of cloud is maximum. A 3.5.3.7.1.a.1 I30 ALL What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. Roll cloud. B. Continuous updraft. C. Beginning of rain at the surface. B 3.5.3.7.2.a.1 I30 ALL During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. Mature. B. Developing. C. Dissipating. C 3.5.3.7.3.a.1 I30 ALL What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms? A. 20 miles. B. 30 miles. C. 40 miles. C 3.5.3.7.4.a.1 I31 ALL Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Precipitation-induced fog. C 3.5.3.7.5.a.1 I31 ALL Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions? A. The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions. B. The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes. C. The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes. A 3.5.3.7.6.a.1 I31 ALL A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is A. a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface. B. an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter. C. a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions. B 3.5.3.7.7.a.1 I31 ALL Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds? A. Nighttime cooling. B. Surface radiation. C. Wind 15 knots or stronger. C 3.5.3.7.8.a.1 I31 ALL What lifts advection fog into low stratus clouds? A. Nighttime cooling. B. Dryness of the underlying land mass. C. Surface winds of approximately 15 knots or stronger. C 3.5.3.7.9.a.1 I31 ALL In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their formation or location? A. Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface. B. Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation. C. Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational cooling of the ground. A 3.5.3.8.0.a.1 I31 ALL With respect to advection fog, which statement is true? A. It is slow to develop, and dissipates quite rapidly. B. It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak. C. It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog. C 3.5.3.8.1.a.1 I32 ALL Which feature is associated with the tropopause? A. Constant height above the Earth. B. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. C. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. B 3.5.3.8.2.a.1 I32 ALL A common location of clear air turbulence is A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream. B. near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow. C. south of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage. A 3.5.3.8.3.a.1 I32 ALL The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by A. dust or haze at flight level. B. long streaks of cirrus clouds. C. a constant outside air temperature. B 3.5.3.8.4.a.1 I32 ALL During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the A. north and speed decreases. B. south and speed increases. C. north and speed increases. B 3.5.3.8.5.a.1 I32 ALL The strength and location of the jet stream is normally A. weaker and farther north in the summer. B. stronger and farther north in the winter. C. stronger and farther north in the summer. A 3.5.3.8.6.a.1 I35 GLI Select the true statement concerning thermals. A. Thermals are unaffected by winds aloft. B. Strong thermals have proportionately increased sink in the air between them. C. A thermal invariably remains directly above the surface area from which it developed. B 3.5.3.8.7.a.1 I35 GLI A thermal column is rising from an asphalt parking lot and the wind is from the south at 12 knots. Which statement would be true? A. As altitude is gained, the best lift will be found directly above the parking lot. B. As altitude is gained, the center of the thermal will be found farther north of the parking lot. C. The slowest rate of sink would be close to the thermal and the fastest rate of sink farther from it. B 3.5.3.8.8.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation? A. Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward. B. Warm air is less dense and rises on its own accord. C. Warmer air covers a larger surface area than the cool air; therefore, the warmer air is less dense and rises. A 3.5.3.8.9.a.1 I35 GLI Which is generally true when comparing the rate of vertical motion of updrafts with that of downdrafts associated with thermals? A. Updrafts and downdrafts move vertically at the same rate. B. Downdrafts have a slower rate of vertical motion than do updrafts. C. Updrafts have a slower rate of vertical motion than do downdrafts. B 3.5.3.9.0.a.1 I35 GLI Which thermal index would predict the best probability of good soaring conditions? A. -10. B. -5. C. +20. A 3.5.3.9.1.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding the effect of fronts on soaring conditions? A. A slow moving front provides the strongest lift. B. Good soaring conditions usually exist after passage of a warm front. C. Frequently, the air behind a cold front provides excellent soaring for several days. C 3.5.3.9.2.a.1 I35 ALL Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by A. water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land. B. land absorbing and radiating heat faster than the water. C. cool and less dense air moving inland from over the water, causing it to rise. B 3.5.3.9.3.a.1 I35 ALL The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of A. stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. B. unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. C. moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge. A 3.5.3.9.4.a.1 I35 GLI When soaring in the vicinity of mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from vertical and rotor-type currents will usually be encountered on the A. leeward side when flying with a tailwind. B. leeward side when flying into the wind. C. windward side when flying into the wind. B 3.5.3.9.5.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding ridge soaring with the wind direction perpendicular to the ridge? A. When flying between peaks along a ridge, the pilot can expect a significant decrease in wind and lift. B. When very close to the surface of the ridge, the glider's speed should be reduced to the minimum sink speed. C. If the glider drifts downwind from the ridge and sinks slightly lower than the crest of the ridge, the glider should be turned away from the ridge and a high speed attained. C 3.5.3.9.6.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 6.) With regard to the soundings taken at 1400 hours, between what altitudes could optimum thermalling be expected at the time of the sounding? A. From 2,500 to 6,000 feet. B. From 6,000 to 10,000 feet. C. From 13,000 to 15,000 feet. A 3.5.3.9.7.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 6.) With regard to the soundings taken at 0900 hours, from 2,500 feet to 15,000 feet, as shown on the Adiabatic Chart, what minimum surface temperature is required for instability to occur and for good thermals to develop from the surface to 15,000 feet MSL? A. 58 °F. B. 68 °F. C. 80 °F. C 3.5.3.9.8.a.1 I40 ALL During preflight preparation, weather report forecasts which are not routinely available at the local service outlet (FSS or WSFO) can best be obtained by means of the A. request/reply service. B. air route traffic control center. C. pilot's automatic telephone answering service. A 3.5.3.9.9.a.1 I40 ALL The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be obtained from A. the FSS or WSO. B. the ATIS broadcast. C. NOTAM's (Class II). A 3.5.4.0.0.a.1 I40 ALL FSS's in the conterminous 48 U.S. having voice capability on VOR's or radiobeacons (NDB's) broadcast A. AIRMET's and SIGMET's at 15 minutes past the hour and each 15 minutes thereafter as long as they are in effect. B. AIRMET's and Nonconvective SIGMET's at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance. C. hourly weather reports at 15 and 45 minutes past each hour for those reporting stations within approximately 150 NM of the broadcast stations. B 3.5.4.0.1.a.1 I40 ALL Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain A. NDB, but not VOR frequencies. B. VOR and NDB frequencies. C. VOR, but not NDB frequencies. B 3.5.4.0.2.a.1 I41 ALL The remarks section of the hourly aviation weather report contains the following coded information: RADAT 87045 What is the meaning of this information? A. Radar echoes with tops at 45,000 feet were observed on the 087 radial of the VORTAC. B. A pilot reported thunderstorms 87 DME miles distance on the 045 radial of the VORTAC. C. Relative humidity was 87 percent and the freezing level (0 °C) was at 4,500 feet MSL. C 3.5.4.0.3.a.1 I41 ALL What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of this Surface Aviation Weather Report for BOI? BOI SP 1854 -X M7 OVC 1 1/2R+F 990/63/61/ 3205/980/RF2 RB12 A. Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky; rain began at 1912. B. Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky; rain began at 1812. C. Runway fog, visibility 2 miles; base of the rain clouds 1,200 feet. B 3.5.4.0.4.a.1 I41 ALL The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness? M5 OVC 1/2HK 173/73/72/0000/002/OVC 75 A. 2,500 feet. B. 3,500 feet. C. 4,000 feet. B 3.5.4.0.5.a.1 I41 ALL What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your destination? A. Rapid variations in windspeed of 15 knots or more between peaks and lulls. B. Peak gusts of at least 35 knots combined with a change in wind direction of 30° or more. C. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots to a sustained speed of 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute. C 3.5.4.0.6.a.1 I41 ALL What significant cloud coverage is reported by a pilot in this SA? MOB...M9 OVC 2LF 131/44/43/3212/991/UA/OV 15NW MOB 1355/SK OVC 025/045 OVC 090 A. Three separate overcast layers exist with bases at 2,500, 7,500, and 13,500 feet. B. The top of lower overcast is 2,500 feet; base and top of second overcast layer is 4,500 and 9,000 feet, respectively. C. The base of second overcast layer is 2,500 feet; top of second overcast layer is 7,500 feet; base of third layer is 13,500 feet. B 3.5.4.0.7.a.1 I42 ALL To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should refer to A. pilot reports. B. Area Forecasts. C. prognostic charts. A 3.5.4.0.8.a.1 I42 ALL Which is true concerning this radar weather report for OKC? OKC 1934 LN 8TRW+/+ 86/40 164/60 199/115 15W 2425 MT 570 AT 159/65 2 INCH HAIL RPRTD THIS ECHO A. There are three cells with tops at 11,500, 40,000, and 60,000 feet. B. The line of cells is moving 080° with winds reported up to 40 knots. C. The maximum top of the cells is 57,000 feet located 65 NM south-southeast of the station. C 3.5.4.0.9.a.1 I43 ALL What is the meaning of the term MVFR, as used in the categorical outlook portion of Terminal and Area Forecasts? A. A ceiling less than 1,000 feet, and/or visibility less than 3 miles. B. A ceiling of 1,000 to 3,000 feet, and/or visibility of 3 to 5 miles. C. A ceiling of 3,000 to 5,000 feet, and visibility of 5 to 7 miles. B 3.5.4.1.0.a.1 I43 ALL The contraction WND in the 6-hour categorical outlook in the Terminal Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be A. 15 to 20 knots. B. less than 25 knots. C. 25 knots or stronger. C 3.5.4.1.1.a.1 I43 ALL Which statement pertaining to a Terminal Forecast is true? The term A. WND in the categorical outlook implies surface winds are forecast to be 10 knots or greater. B. CHC TRW VCNTY in the remarks section pertains to an area within a 5-mile radius of the airport. C. VFR CIGS ABV 100 in the categorical outlook implies ceilings above 10,000 feet and visibility more than 5 miles. C 3.5.4.1.2.a.1 I43 ALL The absence of a visibility entry in a Terminal Forecast specifically implies that the surface visibility is expected to be more than A. 3 miles. B. 6 miles. C. 10 miles. B 3.5.4.1.3.a.1 I43 ALL Terminal Forecasts are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time? A. Three times daily and are valid for 24 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook. B. Four times daily and are valid for 18 hours including a 4-hour categorical outlook. C. Six times daily and are valid for 12 hours with an additional 6-hour categorical outlook. A 3.5.4.1.4.a.1 I43 ALL Which information is contained in the HAZARDS section of the Area Forecast? A. A summary of general weather conditions for the entire region covered in the Area Forecast. B. A brief list of weather phenomena that meet AIRMET and/or SIGMET criteria and the location of each. C. A brief summary of significant weather and clouds that do not meet AIRMET, but meet SIGMET criteria. B 3.5.4.1.5.a.1 I43 ALL The section of the Area Forecast entitled SGFNT CLOUD AND WX contains a summary of A. forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes. B. only those weather systems producing liquid or frozen precipitation, fog, thunderstorms, or IFR ceilings. C. sky condition, cloud heights, visibility, weather and/or obstructions to visibility, and surface winds of 30 knots or more. C 3.5.4.1.6.a.1 I43 ALL In the HAZARDS AND FLIGHT PRECAUTIONS section of an Area Forecast, what is indicated by the forecast term - - FLT PRCTNS...IFR...TX AR LA MS TN AL AND CSTL WTRS? A. IFR conditions which meet in-flight advisory criteria are forecast for the states listed. B. Each state and geographic area listed is reporting ceilings and visibilities below VFR minimums. C. IFR conditions, turbulence, and icing are all forecast within the valid period for the listed states. A 3.5.4.1.7.a.1 I43 ALL In the Area Forecast (FA), what method is used to describe the location of each icing phenomenon? A. VOR points outline the affected area(s) within the designated FA boundary, but not beyond the FA boundary. B. State names and portions of states, such as northwest and south central, are used to outline each affected area. C. VOR points are used to outline the area of icing, including VOR points outside the designated FA boundary, if necessary. C 3.5.4.1.8.a.1 I43 ALL What single reference contains information regarding expected frontal movement, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific area? A. Area Forecast. B. Surface Analysis Chart. C. Weather Depiction Chart. A 3.5.4.1.9.a.1 I43 ALL The National Aviation Weather Advisory Unit prepares FA's for the contiguous U.S. A. twice each day. B. three times each day. C. every 6 hours unless significant changes in weather require it more often. B 3.5.4.2.0.a.1 I43 ALL Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route format? A. Area Forecast. B. Terminal Forecast. C. Transcribed Weather Broadcast. C 3.5.4.2.1.a.1 I43 ALL To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot could monitor A. a TWEB on a low-frequency radio receiver. B. the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency. C. a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service. A 3.5.4.2.2.a.1 I43 ALL SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous A. to all aircraft. B. particularly to heavy aircraft. C. particularly to light airplanes. A 3.5.4.2.3.a.1 I43 ALL Which correctly describes the purpose of convective SIGMET's (WST)? A. They consist of an hourly observation of tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, and large hailstone activity. B. They contain both an observation and a forecast of all thunderstorm and hailstone activity. The forecast is valid for 1 hour only. C. They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal to 3/4 inch in diameter. C 3.5.4.2.4.a.1 I43 ALL What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? A. True direction and MPH. B. True direction and knots. C. Magnetic direction and knots. B 3.5.4.2.5.a.1 I43 ALL On a Surface Analysis Chart, the solid lines that depict sea level pressure patterns are called A. isobars. B. isogons. C. millibars. A 3.5.4.2.6.a.1 I44 ALL Dashed lines on a Surface Analysis Chart, if depicted, indicate that the pressure gradient is A. weak. B. strong. C. unstable. A 3.5.4.2.7.a.1 I44 ALL Which chart provides a ready means of locating observed frontal positions and pressure centers? A. Surface Analysis Chart. B. Constant Pressure Analysis Chart. C. Weather Depiction Chart. A 3.5.4.2.8.a.1 I44 ALL On a Surface Analysis Chart, close spacing of the isobars indicates A. weak pressure gradient. B. strong pressure gradient. C. strong temperature gradient. B 3.5.4.2.9.a.1 I44 ALL The Surface Analysis Chart depicts A. frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission. B. actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dewpoint, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart. C. actual pressure distribution, frontal systems, cloud heights and coverage, temperature, dewpoint, and wind at the time shown on the chart. B 3.5.4.3.0.a.1 I45 ALL Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather? A. Surface Weather Map. B. Radar Summary Chart. C. Weather Depiction Chart. C 3.5.4.3.1.a.1 I45 ALL When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the A. top of the lowest layer. B. base of the lowest layer. C. base of the highest layer. B 3.5.4.3.2.a.1 I46 ALL What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts? A. Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. B. Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations. C. Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds. A 3.5.4.3.3.a.1 I47 ALL Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future? A. Freezing Level Chart. B. Weather Depiction Chart. C. 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostication Chart. C 3.5.4.3.4.a.1 I47 ALL What weather phenomenon is implied within an area enclosed by small scalloped lines on a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart? A. Cirriform clouds, light to moderate turbulence, and icing. B. Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate or greater turbulence. C. Cumuliform or standing lenticular clouds, moderate to severe turbulence, and icing. B 3.5.4.3.5.a.1 I47 ALL The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart forecasts significant weather for what airspace? A. 18,000 feet to 45,000 feet. B. 24,000 feet to 45,000 feet. C. 24,000 feet to 63,000 feet. C 3.5.4.3.6.a.1 I47 ALL What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart? A. 30,000 feet. B. 24,000 feet. C. 18,000 feet. B 3.5.4.3.7.a.1 I49 GLI (Refer to figure 7.) According to the lifted index and K-index shown on the Stability Chart, which area of the U.S. would have the least satisfactory conditions for thermal soaring on the day of the soundings? A. Southeastern. B. North central. C. Western seaboard. B 3.5.4.3.8.a.1 I49 ALL A freezing level panel of the composite moisture stability chart is an analysis of A. forecast freezing level data from surface observations. B. forecast freezing level data from upper air observations. C. observed freezing level data from upper air observations. C 3.5.4.3.9.a.1 I49 ALL The difference found by subtracting the temperature of a parcel of air theoretically lifted from the surface to 500 millibars and the existing temperature at 500 millibars is called the A. lifted index. B. negative index. C. positive index. A 3.5.4.4.0.a.1 I51 ALL Hatching on a Constant Pressure Analysis Chart indicates A. hurricane eye. B. windspeed 70 knots to 110 knots. C. windspeed 110 knots to 150 knots. B 3.5.4.4.1.a.1 I51 ALL What flight planning information can a pilot derive from Constant Pressure Analysis Charts? A. Winds and temperatures aloft. B. Clear air turbulence and icing conditions. C. Frontal systems and obstructions to vision aloft. A 3.5.4.4.2.a.1 I51 ALL From which of the following can the observed temperature, wind, and temperature/ dewpoint spread be determined at a specified altitude? A. Stability Charts. B. Winds Aloft Forecasts. C. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts. C 3.5.4.4.3.a.1 I52 ALL The minimum vertical wind shear value critical for probable moderate or greater turbulence is A. 4 knots per 1,000 feet. B. 6 knots per 1,000 feet. C. 8 knots per 1,000 feet. B 3.5.4.4.4.a.1 I53 ALL A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as A. light chop. B. light turbulence. C. moderate turbulence. B 3.5.4.4.5.a.1 I53 ALL When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that should be reported as A. light. B. severe. C. moderate. C 3.5.4.4.6.a.1 I53 ALL Turbulence that is encountered above 15,000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorms, should be reported as A. severe turbulence. B. clear air turbulence. C. convective turbulence. B 3.5.4.4.7.a.1 K02 ALL Which type of jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence? A. A straight jetstream associated with a low-pressure trough. B. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low-pressure trough. C. A jetstream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes. B 3.5.4.4.8.a.1 K02 ALL A strong wind shear can be expected A. in the jetstream front above a core having a speed of 60 to 90 knots. B. if the 5 °C isotherms are spaced between 7° to 10° of latitude. C. on the low-pressure side of a jetstream core where the speed at the core is stronger than 110 knots. C 3.5.4.4.9.a.1 J33 ALL Low-level wind shear is best described as a A. violently rotating column of air extending from a cumulonimbus cloud. B. change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance in the atmosphere. C. downward motion of the air associated with continuous winds blowing with an easterly component due to the rotation of the Earth. B 3.5.4.5.0.a.1 N33 ALL One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and A. below rotor clouds. B. above rotor clouds. C. below lenticular clouds. A 4.5.4.7.8.a.1 H06 ALL GIVEN: Distance off course...............................9 mi Distance flown....................................95 mi Distance to fly...................................125 mi To converge at the destination, the total correction angle would be A. 4°. B. 6°. C. 10°. C 4.5.4.7.9.a.1 H07 ALL True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the A. values of isogonic lines change from point to point. B. angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point. C. angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point. C 4.5.4.9.0.a.1 H07 ALL Which is true about homing when using ADF during crosswind conditions? Homing A. to a radio station results in a curved path that leads to the station. B. is a practical navigation method for flying both to and from a radio station. C. to a radio station requires that the ADF have an automatically or manually rotatable azimuth. A 4.5.4.9.1.a.1 H07 ALL Which is true regarding tracking on a desired bearing when using ADF during crosswind conditions? A. To track outbound, heading corrections should be made away from the ADF pointer. B. When on the desired track outbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to the windward side of the tail position. C. When on the desired track inbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to the windward side of the nose position. B 4.5.4.9.2.a.1 H07 ALL An aircraft is maintaining a magnetic heading of 265° and the ADF shows a relative bearing of 065°. This indicates that the aircraft is crossing the A. 065° magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. B. 150° magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. C. 330° magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. B 4.5.4.9.3.a.1 H07 ALL The magnetic heading is 315° and the ADF shows a relative bearing of 140°. The magnetic bearing FROM the radiobeacon would be A. 095°. B. 175°. C. 275°. C 4.5.4.9.4.a.1 H07 ALL The magnetic heading is 350° and the relative bearing to a radiobeacon is 240°. What would be the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon? A. 050°. B. 230°. C. 295°. B 4.5.4.9.5.a.1 H07 ALL The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be A. 150°. B. 285°. C. 330°. C 4.5.4.9.6.a.1 H07 ALL If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be A. 040°. B. 065°. C. 220°. A 4.5.4.9.7.a.1 H07 ALL (Refer to figure 16.) If the aircraft continues its present heading as shown in instrument group 3, what will be the relative bearing when the aircraft reaches the magnetic bearing of 030° FROM the NDB? A. 030°. B. 060°. C. 240°. C 4.5.4.9.8.a.1 H07 ALL (Refer to figure 16.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, what would be the relative bearing if the aircraft were turned to a magnetic heading of 090°? A. 150°. B. 190°. C. 250°. C 4.5.4.9.9.a.1 H07 ALL (Refer to figure 16.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned A. left to a heading of 270°. B. right to a heading of 330°. C. right to a heading of 360°. C 4.5.5.0.0.a.1 H07 ALL Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver? A. Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS. B. Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located. C. Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the station. A 4.5.5.0.1.a.1 H07 ALL To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to A. 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. B. 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. C. 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. C 4.5.5.0.2.a.1 H07 ALL To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to A. 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. B. 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. C. 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. C 4.5.5.0.3.a.1 H61 ALL When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should A. rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation. B. climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identify checkpoints. C. apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible. C 4.5.5.0.4.a.1 H61 ALL To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF A. transmitter and receiver. B. transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver. C. transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver. A 4.5.5.0.5.a.1 H66 ALL Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases? A. Altitude. B. Airspeed. C. Angle of attack. B 4.5.5.0.6.a.1 I04 ALL (Refer to figure 17.) Which illustration indicates that the airplane will intercept the 360 radial at a 60° angle inbound, if the present heading is maintained? A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. A 4.5.5.3.2.a.1 I08 ALL When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side? A. 5° to 10°. B. 10° to 12°. C. 18° to 20°. B 4.5.5.3.3.a.1 I08 ALL An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately A. 6 miles. B. 2 miles. C. 1 mile. B 4.5.5.3.4.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Using instrument group 3, if the aircraft makes a 180° turn to the left and continues straight ahead, it will intercept which radial? A. 135 radial. B. 270 radial. C. 360 radial. A 4.5.5.3.5.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft in a position where a 180° turn would result in the aircraft intercepting the 150 radial at a 30° angle? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. C 4.5.5.3.6.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft in a position where a straight course after a 90° left turn would result in intercepting the 180 radial? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. B 4.5.5.3.7.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft to be northwest of the VORTAC? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. B 4.5.5.3.8.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument(s) show(s) that the aircraft is getting further from the selected VORTAC? A. 4. B. 1 and 4. C. 2 and 3. A 4.5.5.5.1.a.1 J01 ALL How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface? A. Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication. B. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication. C. With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication. B 4.5.5.5.2.a.1 J01 ALL When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the A. 090 radial. B. 180 radial. C. 360 radial. C 4.5.5.5.3.a.1 J01 ALL When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read A. within 4° of the selected radial. B. within 6° of the selected radial. C. 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR. B 4.5.5.5.9.a.1 J25 ALL Flight Service Stations in the conterminous 48 United States having voice capability on VOR's or radiobeacons (NDB's) broadcast A. AIRMET's and SIGMET's at 15 minutes past the hour and each 15 minutes thereafter as long as they are in effect. B. AIRMET's and Nonconvective SIGMET's upon receipt and at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance. C. hourly weather reports at 15 and 45 minutes past each hour for those reporting stations within approximately 150 NM of the broadcast stations. B 4.5.5.6.0.a.1 J25 ALL To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross- country flight, a pilot could monitor A. a TWEB on a low-frequency radio receiver. B. the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency. C. a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service. A 4.5.5.6.4.a.1 J37 ALL Which is true relating to the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A. Class E airports are shown in blue; Class C and D are magenta. B. Class B airports are shown in blue; Class D and E are magenta. C. Class E airports are shown in magenta; Class B, C, and D are blue. C 4.5.5.6.5.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point A.) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at A. the surface. B. 3,788 feet MSL. C. 700 feet AGL. B 4.5.5.6.6.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point G.) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is A. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. B. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. C. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL. C 4.5.5.6.7.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point E.) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is A. the surface. B. 700 feet AGL. C. 1,200 feet AGL. B 4.5.5.6.8.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point H.) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is A. 1,200 feet MSL. B. 700 feet AGL. C. 1,200 feet AGL. C 4.5.5.6.9.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 53, point A.) This thin black shaded line is most likely A. an arrival route. B. a military training route. C. a state boundary line. B 4.5.5.7.0.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 53, point B.) The 16 indicates A. an antenna top at 1,600 feet AGL. B. the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle. C. the minimum safe sector altitude for that quadrangle. B 4.5.5.7.2.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point A.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? A. 2,503 feet MSL. B. 2,901 feet MSL. C. 3,297 feet MSL. B 4.5.5.7.4.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point A.) Flight over Livermore Airport (LVK) at 3000 feet MSL A. requires a transponder, but ATC communication is not necessary. B. does not require a transponder or ATC communication. C. cannot be accomplished without meeting all Class B airspace requirements. X/A 4.5.5.7.6.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point D.) The thinner outer blue circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is A. the outer segment of Class B airspace. B. an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. C. a Mode C veil boundary where an aircraft may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains below 8,000 feet. B 4.5.5.7.7.a.1 J37 ALL When fixed wing Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR) operation is prohibited at an airport, the sectional aeronautical chart will A. depict ``TTTT'' symbols in a circular fashion around that airport. B. State ``No SVFR'' near the airport symbol. C. not depict this information. B 4.5.5.8.1.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point D.) The highest obstruction with high intensity lighting within 10 NM of Lincoln Airport (O51) is how high above the ground? A. 1,254 feet. B. 662 feet. C. 299 feet. C 4.5.5.8.3.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point F.) Mosier Airport is A. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots. B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. C. a nonpublic use airport. C 4.5.5.8.4.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point B.) After departing from Rio Vista Airport (O88) with a southerly wind, you discover flight visibility to be approximately 2 1/2 miles, you must A. contact Travis AFB on remote frequency 122.8 to advise of your intentions. B. stay below 1,200 feet to remain in Class G. C. stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G. C 4.5.5.8.5.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point D.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation? A. 376 feet. B. 835 feet. C. 1,135 feet. B 4.5.5.8.7.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point F.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. B. 8,000 feet MSL. C. 2,100 feet AGL. A 4.5.5.8.8.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 53.) GIVEN: Altitude.................................................1,000 ft AGL Position...................................7 NM north of point E Time.......................................................3 p.m. local Flight visibility..................................................1 SM You are VFR approaching Madera Airport (point E) for a landing from the north. You A. are in violation of the FAR's; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR. B. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL before entering Class E airspace and may continue for landing. C. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport. B 5.5.6.0.1.a.1 B08 ALL During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft 1 sees only the green light of aircraft 2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft A. 2; aircraft 2 is to the right of aircraft 1. B. 1; aircraft 1 is to the right of aircraft 2. C. 2; aircraft 2 is to the left of aircraft 1. B 5.5.6.0.4.a.1 H01 ALL Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided? A. Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure. B. Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered. C. Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable. X/B 5.5.6.0.5.a.1 H01 ALL Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during A. abrupt maneuvers. B. normal operations. C. flight in smooth air. B 5.5.6.1.2.a.1 H03 GLI In the Northern Hemisphere, if a sailplane is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate A. correctly, only when on a north or south heading. B. a turn toward south while accelerating on a west heading. C. a turn toward north while decelerating on an east heading. A 5.5.6.1.3.a.1 H03 GLI When flying on a heading of west from one thermal to the next, the airspeed is increased to the speed-to-fly with the wings level. What will the conventional magnetic compass indicate while the airspeed is increasing? A. A turn toward the south. B. A turn toward the north. C. Straight flight on a heading of 270°. B 5.5.6.1.4.a.1 H04 AIR,GLI What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance? A. Increases takeoff speed. B. Increases takeoff distance. C. Decreases takeoff distance. B 5.5.6.1.6.a.1 H04 AIR,RTC,GLI (Refer to figure 31.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing? A. 7 knots. B. 15 knots. C. 17 knots. C 5.5.6.1.7.a.1 H04 AIR,RTC,GLI (Refer to figure 31.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 landing? A. 19 knots. B. 21 knots. C. 23 knots. A 5.5.6.1.8.a.1 H04 AIR,RTC,GLI (Refer to figure 31.) What is the headwind component for a Rwy 13 takeoff if the surface wind is 190° at 15 knots? A. 7 knots. B. 13 knots. C. 15 knots. A 5.5.6.3.4.a.1 H12 ALL The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods? A. Dividing total arms by total moments. B. Multiplying total arms by total weight. C. Dividing total moments by total weight. C 5.5.6.3.5.a.1 H12 ALL The CG of an aircraft may be determined by A. dividing total arms by total moments. B. dividing total moments by total weight. C. multiplying total weight by total moments. B 5.5.6.3.6.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 155 pounds at 45 inches aft of datum Weight B - 165 pounds at 145 inches aft of datum Weight C - 95 pounds at 185 inches aft of datum Based on this information, where would the CG be located aft of datum? A. 86.0 inches. B. 116.8 inches. C. 125.0 inches. B 5.5.6.3.7.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 140 pounds at 17 inches aft of datum Weight B - 120 pounds at 110 inches aft of datum Weight C - 85 pounds at 210 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum? A. 89.11 inches. B. 96.89 inches. C. 106.92 inches. B 5.5.6.3.8.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 135 pounds at 15 inches aft of datum Weight B - 205 pounds at 117 inches aft of datum Weight C - 85 pounds at 195 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum? A. 100.2 inches. B. 109.0 inches. C. 121.7 inches. A 5.5.6.3.9.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 175 pounds at 135 inches aft of datum Weight B - 135 pounds at 115 inches aft of datum Weight C - 75 pounds at 85 inches aft of datum The CG for the combined weights would be located how far aft of datum? A. 91.76 inches. B. 111.67 inches. C. 118.24 inches. C 5.5.6.4.0.a.1 H12 GLI (Refer to figure 36.) GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 610 96.47 ? Pilot (fwd seat) 150 ? ? Passenger 180 ? ? (aft seat) Radio and 10 23.20 ? batteries TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. 33.20. B. 59.55. C. 83.26. C 5.5.6.4.1.a.1 H12 GLI (Refer to figure 36.) GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 612 96.47 ? Pilot (fwd 170 ? ? seat) Passenger 160 ? ? (aft seat) Radio and 10 23.20 ? batteries Ballast 20 14.75 ? TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. 81.23. B. 82.63. C. 83.26. A 5.5.6.4.2.a.1 H12 GLI (Refer to figure 36.) GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 605 96.47 ? Pilot (fwd 120 ? ? seat) Passenger 160 ? ? (aft seat) Radio and 20 23.20 ? batteries Ballast 40 14.75 ? TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. 79.77. B. 80.32. C. 81.09. C 5.5.6.4.3.a.1 H12 GLI GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 957 29.07 ? Pilot (fwd 140 -45.30 ? seat) Passenger 170 +1.60 ? (aft seat) Ballast 15 -45.30 ? TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. -6.43. B. +16.43. C. +27.38. B 5.5.6.8.2.a.1 H76 ALL With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner's manual for computing gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been installed in the aircraft in addition to the original equipment, the A. allowable useful load is decreased. B. allowable useful load remains unchanged. C. maximum allowable gross weight is increased. A 5.5.7.4.0.a.1 I04 ALL To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to A. the current altimeter setting. B. 29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted. C. the field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted. B 5.5.7.4.2.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 47.) At the 0900 hours sounding and the line plotted from the surface to 10,000 feet, what temperature must exist at the surface for instability to take place between these altitudes? Any temperature A. less than 68 °F. B. more than 68 °F. C. less than 43 °F. B 5.5.7.4.3.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 47.) At the sounding taken at 0900 hours from 2,500 feet to 15,000 feet, what minimum surface temperature is required for instability to occur and for good thermals to develop from the surface to 15,000 feet MSL? A. 58 °F. B. 68 °F. C. 80 °F. C 5.5.7.4.4.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 47.) At the soundings taken at 1400 hours, is the atmosphere stable or unstable and at what altitudes? A. Stable from 6,000 to 10,000 feet. B. Stable from 10,000 to 13,000 feet. C. Unstable from 10,000 to 13,000 feet. B 5.5.7.4.5.a.1 I35 GLI Which thermal index would predict the best probability of good soaring conditions? A. +5. B. -5. C. -10. C 5.5.7.4.6.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding the effect of fronts on soaring conditions? A. Good soaring conditions usually exist after passage of a warm front. B. Excellent soaring conditions usually exist in the cold air ahead of a warm front. C. Frequently the air behind a cold front provides excellent soaring for several days. C 5.5.7.4.7.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding ridge soaring with the wind direction perpendicular to the ridge? A. When very close to the surface of the ridge, the glider's speed should be reduced to the minimum sink speed. B. When the wind and lift are very strong on the windward side of the ridge, a weak sink condition will exist on the leeward side. C. If the glider drifts downwind from the ridge and sinks slightly lower than the crest of the ridge, the glider should be turned away from the ridge and a high speed attained. C 5.5.7.4.9.a.1 J14 ALL When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to A. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic. B. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions. C. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial. B 5.5.7.5.0.a.1 J27 ALL Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence. A. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll. B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll. C. The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast. B 5.5.7.5.1.a.1 J27 ALL During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by A. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. B. maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout. C. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point. A 5.5.7.5.2.a.1 J27 ALL Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? A. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. B. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. C. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course. A 5.5.7.5.3.a.1 J27 ALL To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? A. Past the point where the jet touched down. B. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point. C. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down. A 5.5.7.5.4.a.1 J27 ALL When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? A. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. B. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath. C. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind. A 5.5.7.5.5.a.1 J27 ALL With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation. B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast. C. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes. C 5.5.7.5.6.a.1 J27 ALL Which is true with respect to vortex circulation? A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation. B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow. C. When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger. B 5.5.7.5.7.a.1 J31 ALL As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience A. decreased breathing rate and depth. B. heightened awareness and feeling of well being. C. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness. C 5.5.7.5.8.a.1 J31 ALL To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should A. continuously sweep vision field. B. concentrate on any peripheral movement detected. C. systematically focus on different segments of vision field for short intervals. C 5.5.7.5.9.a.1 J31 ALL Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. Drowsiness. B. Decreased breathing rate. C. EuphoriA. sense of well-being. A 5.5.7.6.0.a.1 J31 ALL Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Insufficient oxygen. B. Excessive carbon monoxide. C. Insufficient carbon dioxide. C 5.5.7.6.1.a.1 J31 ALL Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. B. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. C. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. B 5.5.7.6.2.a.1 J53 ALL To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should A. swallow or yawn. B. slow the breathing rate. C. increase the breathing rate. B 5.5.7.6.3.a.1 J56 ALL Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? A. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. B. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. C. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. C 5.5.7.6.4.a.1 J58 ALL Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as A. humidity decreases. B. altitude increases. C. oxygen demand increases. B 5.5.7.6.9.a.1 N02 GLI What corrective action should be taken during a landing if the glider pilot makes the roundout too soon while using spoilers? A. Leave the spoilers extended and lower the nose slightly. B. Retract the spoilers and leave them retracted until after touchdown. C. Retract the spoilers until the glider begins to settle again, then extend the spoilers. A 5.5.7.7.0.a.1 N04 GLI What consideration should be given in the choice of a towplane for use in aerotows? A. L/D ratio of the glider to be towed. B. Gross weight of the glider to be towed. C. Towplane's low-wing loading and low-power loading. B 5.5.7.7.1.a.1 N20 GLI Looseness in a glider's flight control linkage or attachments could result in A. increased stalling speed. B. loss of control during an aerotow in turbulence. C. flutter while flying at near maximum speed in turbulence. C 5.5.7.7.2.a.1 N20 GLI A left side slip is used to counteract a crosswind drift during the final approach for landing. An over-the-top spin would most likely occur if the controls were used in which of the following ways? Holding the stick A. too far back and applying full right rudder. B. in the neutral position and applying full right rudder. C. too far to the left and applying full left rudder. A 5.5.7.7.3.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 48.) If a dual glider weighs 1,040 pounds and an indicated airspeed of 55 MPH is maintained, how much altitude will be lost while traveling 1 mile? A. 120 feet. B. 240 feet. C. 310 feet. B 5.5.7.7.4.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 48.) If a dual glider weighs 1,040 pounds, what is the minimum sink speed and rate of sink? A. 38 MPH and 2.6 ft/sec. B. 42 MPH and 3.1 ft/sec. C. 38 MPH and 3.6 ft/sec. B 5.5.7.7.5.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 48.) If the airspeed of a glider is increased from 54 MPH to 60 MPH, the L/D ratio would A. decrease and the rate of sink would increase. B. increase and the rate of sink would decrease. C. decrease and the rate of sink would decrease. A 5.5.7.7.6.a.1 N21 GLI Minimum sink speed is the airspeed which results in the A. least loss of altitude in a given time. B. least loss of altitude in a given distance. C. shallowest glide angle in any convective situation. A 5.5.7.7.7.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 49.) If the airspeed is 70 MPH and the sink rate is 5.5 ft/sec, what is the effective L/D ratio with respect to the ground? A. 19:1. B. 20:1. C. 21:1. A 5.5.7.7.8.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 49.) If the airspeed is 50 MPH and the sink rate is 3.2 ft/sec, what is the effective L/D ratio with respect to the ground? A. 20:1. B. 21:1. C. 23:1. C 5.5.7.7.9.a.1 N21 GLI The glider has a normal L/D ratio of 23:1 at an airspeed of 50 MPH. What would be the effective L/D ratio with respect to the ground with a 10 MPH tailwind? A. 23:1. B. 25:1. C. 27.6:1. C 5.5.7.8.0.a.1 N21 GLI If the glider has drifted a considerable distance from the airport while soaring, the best speed to use to reach the airport when flying into a headwind is the A. best glide speed. B. minimum sink speed. C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's altitude. C 5.5.7.8.1.a.1 N21 GLI The maximum airspeed at which abrupt and full deflection of the controls would not cause structural damage to a glider is called the A. speed-to-fly. B. maneuvering speed. C. never-exceed speed. B 5.5.7.8.2.a.1 N21 GLI Which is true regarding minimum control airspeed while thermalling? Minimum control airspeed A. may coincide with minimum sink airspeed. B. is greater than minimum sink airspeed. C. never coincides with minimum sink airspeed. A 5.5.7.8.3.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 50.) Which is true when the glider is operated in the high-performance category and the dive brakes/spoilers are in the closed position? The A. design dive speed is 150 MPH. B. never-exceed speed is 150 MPH. C. design maneuvering speed is 76 MPH. B 5.5.7.8.4.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 50.) If the glider's airspeed is 70 MPH and a vertical gust of +30 ft/sec is encountered, which would most likely occur? The A. glider would momentarily stall. B. maximum load factor would be exceeded. C. glider would gain 1,800 feet in 1 minute. A 5.5.7.8.5.a.1 N21 GLI Regarding the effect of loading on glider performance, a heavily loaded glider would A. have a lower glide ratio than when lightly loaded. B. have slower forward speed than when lightly loaded. C. make better flight time on a cross-country flight between thermals than when lightly loaded. C 5.5.7.8.6.a.1 N21 GLI When flying into a strong headwind on a long final glide or a long glide back to the airport, the recommended speed to use is the A. best glide speed. B. minimum sink speed. C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's flight altitude. C 5.5.7.8.7.a.1 N21 GLI Which procedure can be used to increase forward speed on a cross-country flight? A. Maintain minimum sink speed plus or minus one-half the estimated wind velocity. B. Use water ballast while thermals are strong and dump the water when thermals are weak. C. Use water ballast while thermals are weak and dump the water when thermals are strong. B 5.5.7.8.8.a.1 N21 GLI The reason for retaining water ballast while thermals are strong, is to A. decrease forward speed. B. decrease cruise performance. C. increase cruise performance. C 5.5.7.8.9.a.1 N21 GLI When flying into a headwind, penetrating speed is the glider's A. speed-to-fly. B. minimum sink speed. C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated wind velocity. C 5.5.7.9.0.a.1 N21 GLI Which is true regarding the effect on a glider's performance by the addition of ballast or weight? A. The glide ratio at a given airspeed will increase. B. The heavier the glider is loaded, the less the glide ratio will be at all airspeeds. C. A higher airspeed is required to obtain the same glide ratio as when lightly loaded. C 5.5.7.9.1.a.1 N22 GLI When flying on a heading of east from one thermal to the next, the airspeed is increased to the speed-to-fly with wings level. What will the conventional magnetic compass indicate while the airspeed is increasing? A. A turn toward the south. B. A turn toward the north. C. Straight flight on a heading of 090°. B 5.5.7.9.2.a.1 N28 GLI Select the true statement concerning oxygen systems that are often installed in sailplanes. A. Most civilian aircraft oxygen systems use low-pressure cylinders for oxygen storage. B. When aviation breathing oxygen is not available, hospital or welder's oxygen serves as a good substitute. C. In case of a malfunction of the main oxygen system a bailout bottle may serve as an emergency oxygen supply. C 5.5.7.9.3.a.1 N29 GLI The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind? A. Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation. B. Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation. C. Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation. A 5.5.7.9.4.a.1 N29 GLI Which is true regarding the assembly of a glider for flight? A. It may be accomplished by the pilot. B. It is not required by regulations for a glider pilot to know this. C. It must be accomplished under the supervision of an FAA maintenance inspector. A 5.5.7.9.5.a.1 N30 GLI Is it good operating practice to release from a low-tow position? A. No. The towline may snap back and strike the towplane. B. No. The tow ring may strike and damage the glider after release. C. Yes. Low-tow position is the correct position for releasing from the towplane. B 5.5.7.9.6.a.1 N30 GLI To signal the glider pilot during an aerotow to release immediately, the tow pilot will A. fishtail the towplane. B. rock the towplane's wings. C. alternately raise and lower the towplane's pitch attitude. B 5.5.7.9.7.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, moving from the inside to the outside of the towplane's flightpath during a turn will cause the A. towline to slacken. B. glider's airspeed to increase, resulting in a tendency to climb. C. glider's airspeed to decrease, resulting in a tendency to descend. B 5.5.7.9.8.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, is it good operating practice to release from a low-tow position? A. No. The tow ring may strike and damage the glider after release. B. No. The towline may snap forward and strike the towplane after release. C. Yes. Low-tow position is the correct position for releasing from the towplane. A 5.5.7.9.9.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, if slack develops in the towline, the glider pilot should correct this situation by A. making a shallow-banked coordinated turn to either side. B. increasing the glider's pitch attitude until the towline becomes taut. C. yawing the glider's nose to one side with rudder while keeping the wings level with the ailerons. C 5.5.8.0.0.a.1 N30 GLI During aerotow takeoffs in crosswind conditions, the glider starts drifting downwind after becoming airborne and before the towplane lifts off. The glider pilot should A. not correct for a crosswind during this part of the takeoff. B. crab into the wind to remain in the flightpath of the towplane. C. hold upwind rudder in order to crab into the wind and remain in the flightpath of the towplane. B 5.5.8.0.1.a.1 N30 GLI When should the wing runner raise the glider's wing to the level position in preparation for takeoff? A. When the towplane pilot fans the towplane's rudder. B. When the glider pilot is seated and has fastened the safety belt. C. After the glider pilot gives a thumbs-up signal to take up towline slack. C 5.5.8.0.2.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, the sailplane moves to one side of the towplane's flightpath. This was most likely caused by A. variations in the heading of the towplane. B. entering wingtip vortices created by the towplane. C. flying the sailplane in a wing-low attitude or holding unnecessary rudder pressure. C 5.5.8.0.3.a.1 N30 GLI In which manner should the sailplane be flown while turning during an aerotow? By A. flying inside the towplane's flightpath. B. flying outside the towplane's flightpath. C. banking at the same point in space where the towplane banked and using the same degree of bank and rate of roll. C 5.5.8.0.4.a.1 N30 GLI What corrective action should the sailplane pilot take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left? A. Crab into the wind to maintain a position directly behind the towplane. B. Establish a right wing-low drift correction to remain in the flightpath of the towplane. C. Wait until the towplane becomes airborne before attempting to establish a drift correction. A 5.5.8.0.5.a.1 N31 GLI At what point during an autotow should the glider pilot establish the maximum pitch attitude for the climb? A. Immediately after takeoff. B. 100 feet above the ground. C. 200 feet above the ground. C 5.5.8.0.6.a.1 N31 GLI When preparing for an autotow with a strong crosswind, where should the glider and towrope be placed? A. Straight behind the tow car. B. Obliquely to the line of takeoff on the upwind side of the tow car. C. Obliquely to the line of takeoff on the downwind side of the tow car. C 5.5.8.0.7.a.1 N31 GLI Which is true regarding the use of glider tow hooks? A. The use of a CG hook for auto or winch tows allows the sailplane greater altitude for a given line length. B. The use of a CG hook for aerotows allows better directional control at the start of the launch than the use of a nose hook. C. The use of a nose hook for an auto or winch launch reduces structural loading on the tail assembly compared to the use of a CG hook. A 5.5.8.0.8.a.1 N31 GLI GIVEN: Glider's max auto/winch tow speed .....66 MPH Surface wind (direct headwind).............5 MPH Wind gradient.......................................4 MPH When the glider reaches an altitude of 200 feet the auto/winch speed should be A. 42 MPH. B. 46 MPH. C. 56 MPH. A 5.5.8.0.9.a.1 N31 GLI The towrope breaks when at the steepest segment of the climb during a winch launch. To recover to a normal gliding attitude, the pilot should A. relax the back stick pressure to avoid excessive loss of altitude. B. apply forward pressure until the buffeting sound and vibration disappear. C. move the stick fully forward immediately and hold it there until the nose crosses the horizon. C 5.5.8.1.0.a.1 N31 GLI Which would cause pitch oscillations or porpoising during a winch launch? A. Excessive winch speed. B. Insufficient winch speed. C. Excessive slack in the towline. B 5.5.8.1.1.a.1 N31 GLI During an auto launch, the pitch angle of the glider should not exceed A. 10° at 50 feet, 20° at 100 feet, and 45° at 200 feet. B. 15° at 50 feet, 30° at 100 feet, and 45° at 200 feet. C. 15° at 50 feet, 20° at 100 feet, and 40° at 200 feet. B 5.5.8.1.2.a.1 N31 GLI To stop pitch oscillation during a winch launch, the pilot should A. increase the back pressure on the control stick and steepen the angle of climb. B. relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb. C. extend and retract the spoilers several times until the oscillations subside. B 5.5.8.1.3.a.1 N32 GLI What should be expected when making a downwind landing? The likelihood of A. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster airspeed at touchdown. B. overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown. C. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown. B 5.5.8.1.4.a.1 N32 GLI What corrective action should be taken, if while thermalling at minimum sink speed in turbulent air, the left wing drops while turning to the left? A. Apply right rudder pressure to slow the rate of turn. B. Lower the nose before applying right aileron pressure. C. Apply right aileron pressure to counteract the overbanking tendency. B 5.5.8.1.5.a.1 N32 GLI A rule of thumb for flying a final approach is to maintain a speed that is A. twice the glider's stall speed, regardless of windspeed. B. twice the glider's stall speed plus half the estimated windspeed. C. 50 percent above the glider's stall speed plus half the estimated windspeed. C 5.5.8.1.6.a.1 N32 GLI To stop a ground loop to the left after landing a glider, it would be best to lower the A. right wing in order to shift the CG. B. left wing to compensate for crosswind. C. nose skid to the ground and apply wheel brake. C 5.5.8.1.7.a.1 N32 GLI In which situation is a hazardous stall more likely to occur if inadequate airspeed allowance is made for wind velocity gradient? A. During the approach to a landing. B. While thermalling at high altitudes. C. During takeoff and climb while on aerotow. A 5.5.8.1.8.a.1 N33 GLI With regard to two or more gliders flying in the same thermal, which is true? A. All turns should be to the right. B. Turns should be in the same direction as the highest glider. C. Turns should be made in the same direction as the first glider to enter the thermal. C 5.5.8.1.9.a.1 N33 GLI Which is true regarding the direction in which turns should be made during slope soaring? A. All reversing turns should be made to the left. B. All reversing turns should be made into the wind away from the slope. C. The upwind turn should be made to the left; the downwind turn should be made to the right. B 5.5.8.2.0.a.1 N33 GLI Which airspeed should be used when circling within a thermal? A. Best L/D speed. B. Maneuvering speed. C. Minimum sink speed for the angle of bank. C 5.5.8.2.1.a.1 N34 GLI Which is a recommended procedure for an off-field landing? A. A recommended landing site would be a pasture. B. Always land into the wind even if you have to land downhill on a sloping field. C. If the field slopes, it is usually best to land uphill, even with a tailwind. C 5.5.8.2.2.a.1 N34 GLI What would be a proper action or procedure to use if you are getting too low on a cross-country flight in a sailplane? A. Fly directly into the wind and make a straight-in approach at the end of the glide. B. Have a suitable landing area selected upon reaching 2,000 feet AGL, and a specific field chosen upon reaching 1,500 feet AGL. C. Continue on course until descending to 500 feet, then select a field and confine the search for lift to an area within gliding range of a downwind leg for the field you have chosen. B 5.5.8.2.3.a.1 N34 GLI What is the proper speed to fly when passing through lift with no intention to work the lift? A. Best L/D speed. B. Maximum safe speed. C. Minimum sink speed. C 5.5.8.2.4.a.1 N34 GLI What is the proper airspeed to use when flying between thermals on a cross-country flight against a headwind? A. The best L/D speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. B. The best L/D speed decreased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. C. The minimum sink speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. A